That's correct under the negligence theory, but notice plays not effect in intent torts.Originally Posted by Манюня
That's correct under the negligence theory, but notice plays not effect in intent torts.Originally Posted by Манюня
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Маня ты заставляишь насильна смотреть такое?????????????????????Originally Posted by Манюня
Common. Reckless endangerement is good enough for murder, right? So, why not operate under the same logic for intentional torts?Originally Posted by Shtirliz
oмайгад
Criminal cuts off liability for negligence, in proximate causation :D Any crime is an unforeseen intervening force.Originally Posted by Манюня
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Not when the crime is foreseeable, remember?Originally Posted by Shtirliz
oмайгад
привычка - вторая натураOriginally Posted by cosmopolit
No, that correct, but we are talking about notice. Notice allows the defendant to conform to the right standard, correct?Originally Posted by Манюня
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But when can a crime be forseable? ( damn it my lexis account expired):(Originally Posted by Манюня
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Notice also establishes reckless disregard when it is continuously disregarded.Originally Posted by Shtirliz
So, the question in the case you are talking about, will be - how many complaints did the host receive before the incident in question and what did he do about them. If it happened before and the plaintiff can prove reckless disregard, I think they got themselves a case.
oмайгад
Russian, please? :rolleyes:
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