You crack me up, Foma!:D So I take it you agree with it…Originally Posted by Фoма
If kids born to the Indian parents, wishing to acquire US citizenship and who had been here for centuries were not subject to the US jurisdiction then how foreigners from other countries are made subject to it?
Here’s the statement explaining the decision of 1884:
The jurisdiction requirement “put it beyond doubt that all persons, white or black, and whether formerly slaves or not, born or naturalized in the United States, and owing no allegiance to any alien power, should be citizens of the United States... The evident meaning of [the jurisdiction requirement] is, not merely subject in some respect or degree to the jurisdiction of the United States, but completely subject to their political jurisdiction, and owing them direct and immediate allegiance.”
This justice simply held close to the same interpretation of another case of 1873. Notice how the term “jurisdiction “ excluded foreigners in 1873: “the jurisdiction requirement was intended to exclude from [the Citizenship Clause’s] operation children of ministers, consuls, and citizens or subjects of foreign states born within the United States.”
The Hamdi case gave hope to some that sooner or later the original intent of the amendment will be restored through the “court” since at least two justices didn’t agree with the opinion of O’Connor.
That’s why now when she’s retiring it’s important for them to put more conservative judges.
But off course many think that even better than having it restored through courts would be a “change” clause to the amendment. It would leave no room for ambiguities for future courts and put an end to “citizenship entitlement by birth” once and for all.